We already know from Question 1 that for $p=1$, the integral diverges.
Now consider $p \neq 1$:
\[ \int_1^{\infty} \frac{1}{x^p} \, dx = \lim_{t \to \infty} \int_1^t x^{-p} \, dx = \lim_{t \to \infty} \left[ \frac{x^{-p+1}}{-p+1} \right]_1^t = \lim_{t \to \infty} \frac{1}{1-p} \left[ \frac{1}{x^{p-1}} \right]_1^t \]
\[ = \lim_{t \to \infty} \frac{1}{1-p} \left( \frac{1}{t^{p-1}} - 1 \right) \]
The convergence of this limit depends on the behavior of $t^{p-1}$ as $t \to \infty$.
- If $p-1 > 0$ (i.e., $p>1$), then $t^{p-1} \to \infty$, so $\frac{1}{t^{p-1}} \to 0$. The limit becomes $\frac{1}{1-p}(0-1) = \frac{1}{p-1}$. The integral converges.
- If $p-1 < 0$ (i.e., $p<1$), then let $k=1-p > 0$. The term becomes $\frac{1}{t^{-k}} = t^k$, which goes to $\infty$ as $t \to \infty$. The integral diverges.
Combining all cases, the integral converges for $p>1$.